definition of observer and time measured by different observers in general relativity
$begingroup$
An observer in general relativity is defined as a future directed timelike worldline
begin{align*}
gamma:I subset mathbb R &to M \
lambda &mapsto gamma(lambda)
end{align*}
together with an orthonormal basis $e_a(lambda) in T_{gamma(lambda)}M$ where $e_0(lambda)= v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)}$ and
begin{align}
g_{gamma(lambda)}(e_a(lambda),e_b(lambda))=eta_{ab}~. qquad (1)
end{align}
Here, $v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)}$ is the velocity of the worldline $gamma$ at the point $gamma(lambda)in M$ and $g$ is the metric tensor field on $M$. The time measured by the clock carried by this observer between events $lambda_0, lambda_1$ is defined as
begin{align}
tau_gamma = int_{lambda_0}^{lambda_1} dlambda sqrt{g_{gamma(lambda)}(v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)},v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)})}~.
end{align}
However,
begin{align}
g_{gamma(lambda)}(v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)},v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)}) = g_{gamma(lambda)}(e_0(lambda),e_0(lambda))=1 qquad (2)
end{align}
which follows from the requirement of eq.(1). We are using signature $(+,-,-,-)$.
This is all standard definition. Suppose, we have another observer $delta$:
begin{align*}
delta:I subset mathbb R &to M \
lambda &mapsto delta(lambda)
end{align*}
and the time measured by his clock between the same two events $lambda_0, lambda_1$ is
begin{align}
tau_delta = int_{lambda_0}^{lambda_1} dlambda sqrt{g_{delta(lambda)}(v_{delta, delta(lambda)},v_{delta, delta(lambda)})}~.
end{align}
From equations (1) and (2), we get $tau_gamma = tau_delta$ and this will be true for all observers measuring time between $lambda_0, lambda_1$.
However, I know that my conclusion is wrong. Can you point out where I went astray?
general-relativity observers
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
An observer in general relativity is defined as a future directed timelike worldline
begin{align*}
gamma:I subset mathbb R &to M \
lambda &mapsto gamma(lambda)
end{align*}
together with an orthonormal basis $e_a(lambda) in T_{gamma(lambda)}M$ where $e_0(lambda)= v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)}$ and
begin{align}
g_{gamma(lambda)}(e_a(lambda),e_b(lambda))=eta_{ab}~. qquad (1)
end{align}
Here, $v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)}$ is the velocity of the worldline $gamma$ at the point $gamma(lambda)in M$ and $g$ is the metric tensor field on $M$. The time measured by the clock carried by this observer between events $lambda_0, lambda_1$ is defined as
begin{align}
tau_gamma = int_{lambda_0}^{lambda_1} dlambda sqrt{g_{gamma(lambda)}(v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)},v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)})}~.
end{align}
However,
begin{align}
g_{gamma(lambda)}(v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)},v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)}) = g_{gamma(lambda)}(e_0(lambda),e_0(lambda))=1 qquad (2)
end{align}
which follows from the requirement of eq.(1). We are using signature $(+,-,-,-)$.
This is all standard definition. Suppose, we have another observer $delta$:
begin{align*}
delta:I subset mathbb R &to M \
lambda &mapsto delta(lambda)
end{align*}
and the time measured by his clock between the same two events $lambda_0, lambda_1$ is
begin{align}
tau_delta = int_{lambda_0}^{lambda_1} dlambda sqrt{g_{delta(lambda)}(v_{delta, delta(lambda)},v_{delta, delta(lambda)})}~.
end{align}
From equations (1) and (2), we get $tau_gamma = tau_delta$ and this will be true for all observers measuring time between $lambda_0, lambda_1$.
However, I know that my conclusion is wrong. Can you point out where I went astray?
general-relativity observers
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
An observer in general relativity is defined as a future directed timelike worldline
begin{align*}
gamma:I subset mathbb R &to M \
lambda &mapsto gamma(lambda)
end{align*}
together with an orthonormal basis $e_a(lambda) in T_{gamma(lambda)}M$ where $e_0(lambda)= v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)}$ and
begin{align}
g_{gamma(lambda)}(e_a(lambda),e_b(lambda))=eta_{ab}~. qquad (1)
end{align}
Here, $v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)}$ is the velocity of the worldline $gamma$ at the point $gamma(lambda)in M$ and $g$ is the metric tensor field on $M$. The time measured by the clock carried by this observer between events $lambda_0, lambda_1$ is defined as
begin{align}
tau_gamma = int_{lambda_0}^{lambda_1} dlambda sqrt{g_{gamma(lambda)}(v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)},v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)})}~.
end{align}
However,
begin{align}
g_{gamma(lambda)}(v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)},v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)}) = g_{gamma(lambda)}(e_0(lambda),e_0(lambda))=1 qquad (2)
end{align}
which follows from the requirement of eq.(1). We are using signature $(+,-,-,-)$.
This is all standard definition. Suppose, we have another observer $delta$:
begin{align*}
delta:I subset mathbb R &to M \
lambda &mapsto delta(lambda)
end{align*}
and the time measured by his clock between the same two events $lambda_0, lambda_1$ is
begin{align}
tau_delta = int_{lambda_0}^{lambda_1} dlambda sqrt{g_{delta(lambda)}(v_{delta, delta(lambda)},v_{delta, delta(lambda)})}~.
end{align}
From equations (1) and (2), we get $tau_gamma = tau_delta$ and this will be true for all observers measuring time between $lambda_0, lambda_1$.
However, I know that my conclusion is wrong. Can you point out where I went astray?
general-relativity observers
$endgroup$
An observer in general relativity is defined as a future directed timelike worldline
begin{align*}
gamma:I subset mathbb R &to M \
lambda &mapsto gamma(lambda)
end{align*}
together with an orthonormal basis $e_a(lambda) in T_{gamma(lambda)}M$ where $e_0(lambda)= v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)}$ and
begin{align}
g_{gamma(lambda)}(e_a(lambda),e_b(lambda))=eta_{ab}~. qquad (1)
end{align}
Here, $v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)}$ is the velocity of the worldline $gamma$ at the point $gamma(lambda)in M$ and $g$ is the metric tensor field on $M$. The time measured by the clock carried by this observer between events $lambda_0, lambda_1$ is defined as
begin{align}
tau_gamma = int_{lambda_0}^{lambda_1} dlambda sqrt{g_{gamma(lambda)}(v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)},v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)})}~.
end{align}
However,
begin{align}
g_{gamma(lambda)}(v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)},v_{gamma, gamma(lambda)}) = g_{gamma(lambda)}(e_0(lambda),e_0(lambda))=1 qquad (2)
end{align}
which follows from the requirement of eq.(1). We are using signature $(+,-,-,-)$.
This is all standard definition. Suppose, we have another observer $delta$:
begin{align*}
delta:I subset mathbb R &to M \
lambda &mapsto delta(lambda)
end{align*}
and the time measured by his clock between the same two events $lambda_0, lambda_1$ is
begin{align}
tau_delta = int_{lambda_0}^{lambda_1} dlambda sqrt{g_{delta(lambda)}(v_{delta, delta(lambda)},v_{delta, delta(lambda)})}~.
end{align}
From equations (1) and (2), we get $tau_gamma = tau_delta$ and this will be true for all observers measuring time between $lambda_0, lambda_1$.
However, I know that my conclusion is wrong. Can you point out where I went astray?
general-relativity observers
general-relativity observers
asked 18 hours ago
damaihatidamaihati
683
683
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Your conclusion is correct, because what you are doing by saying that $g(v_{gamma,gamma(lambda)},v_{gamma,gamma(lambda)}) = 1$ is that the parameter $lambda$ is exactly equal to proper time. You can have different parametrizations $tilde{lambda}$ of the curve $gamma$ that have $g(v_{gamma,gamma(tilde{lambda})},v_{gamma,gamma(tilde{lambda})}) neq 1$ and then, of course, they do not correspond to proper time of the observer on the curve.
Your conclusion from the OP just states that if you have two curves parametrized by proper time, then when they are evolved for the same amount of proper time, the same amount of proper time passes on them. A quite tautological statement!
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I think maybe the answer could be phrased differently: there is a mistake in the OP's math, which is that the limits of integration have no particular reason to be the same. I think the point is made more clearly, but that may just be me.
$endgroup$
– Javier
12 hours ago
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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active
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1 Answer
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active
oldest
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$begingroup$
Your conclusion is correct, because what you are doing by saying that $g(v_{gamma,gamma(lambda)},v_{gamma,gamma(lambda)}) = 1$ is that the parameter $lambda$ is exactly equal to proper time. You can have different parametrizations $tilde{lambda}$ of the curve $gamma$ that have $g(v_{gamma,gamma(tilde{lambda})},v_{gamma,gamma(tilde{lambda})}) neq 1$ and then, of course, they do not correspond to proper time of the observer on the curve.
Your conclusion from the OP just states that if you have two curves parametrized by proper time, then when they are evolved for the same amount of proper time, the same amount of proper time passes on them. A quite tautological statement!
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I think maybe the answer could be phrased differently: there is a mistake in the OP's math, which is that the limits of integration have no particular reason to be the same. I think the point is made more clearly, but that may just be me.
$endgroup$
– Javier
12 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Your conclusion is correct, because what you are doing by saying that $g(v_{gamma,gamma(lambda)},v_{gamma,gamma(lambda)}) = 1$ is that the parameter $lambda$ is exactly equal to proper time. You can have different parametrizations $tilde{lambda}$ of the curve $gamma$ that have $g(v_{gamma,gamma(tilde{lambda})},v_{gamma,gamma(tilde{lambda})}) neq 1$ and then, of course, they do not correspond to proper time of the observer on the curve.
Your conclusion from the OP just states that if you have two curves parametrized by proper time, then when they are evolved for the same amount of proper time, the same amount of proper time passes on them. A quite tautological statement!
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I think maybe the answer could be phrased differently: there is a mistake in the OP's math, which is that the limits of integration have no particular reason to be the same. I think the point is made more clearly, but that may just be me.
$endgroup$
– Javier
12 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Your conclusion is correct, because what you are doing by saying that $g(v_{gamma,gamma(lambda)},v_{gamma,gamma(lambda)}) = 1$ is that the parameter $lambda$ is exactly equal to proper time. You can have different parametrizations $tilde{lambda}$ of the curve $gamma$ that have $g(v_{gamma,gamma(tilde{lambda})},v_{gamma,gamma(tilde{lambda})}) neq 1$ and then, of course, they do not correspond to proper time of the observer on the curve.
Your conclusion from the OP just states that if you have two curves parametrized by proper time, then when they are evolved for the same amount of proper time, the same amount of proper time passes on them. A quite tautological statement!
$endgroup$
Your conclusion is correct, because what you are doing by saying that $g(v_{gamma,gamma(lambda)},v_{gamma,gamma(lambda)}) = 1$ is that the parameter $lambda$ is exactly equal to proper time. You can have different parametrizations $tilde{lambda}$ of the curve $gamma$ that have $g(v_{gamma,gamma(tilde{lambda})},v_{gamma,gamma(tilde{lambda})}) neq 1$ and then, of course, they do not correspond to proper time of the observer on the curve.
Your conclusion from the OP just states that if you have two curves parametrized by proper time, then when they are evolved for the same amount of proper time, the same amount of proper time passes on them. A quite tautological statement!
answered 18 hours ago
VoidVoid
10.7k1757
10.7k1757
$begingroup$
I think maybe the answer could be phrased differently: there is a mistake in the OP's math, which is that the limits of integration have no particular reason to be the same. I think the point is made more clearly, but that may just be me.
$endgroup$
– Javier
12 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I think maybe the answer could be phrased differently: there is a mistake in the OP's math, which is that the limits of integration have no particular reason to be the same. I think the point is made more clearly, but that may just be me.
$endgroup$
– Javier
12 hours ago
$begingroup$
I think maybe the answer could be phrased differently: there is a mistake in the OP's math, which is that the limits of integration have no particular reason to be the same. I think the point is made more clearly, but that may just be me.
$endgroup$
– Javier
12 hours ago
$begingroup$
I think maybe the answer could be phrased differently: there is a mistake in the OP's math, which is that the limits of integration have no particular reason to be the same. I think the point is made more clearly, but that may just be me.
$endgroup$
– Javier
12 hours ago
add a comment |
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